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I understand that noble gases need energy input to get another e- (low affinity) because they already have an octet, but why do we say then that they have low affinity rather than ABSOLUTELY NO affinity if they are stable/satisfied already?
I'm not entirely sure, but I feel in Chem there are rarely absolutes as most things are viewed in comparison to one another. I know it is possible for a noble gas to receive an electron, just very very unlikely, so we can't say zero affinity.
I know that this is not the exact place for this question but does anyone know if we can ask for extensions on assignments because i did not finish my assignment on time. If so how do we go about it with asking. Literally online school sucks, I cant find anyone to actually help me with the things i dont understand.
So the definition of electron affinity is the energy released when an e- is added to the gas phase of an atom. The reason that they have low eectron affinity is because it is still possible for you to add an electron to the outer valence shell of a noble gas it just won't be stabe and will soon return to its natural state. However, we can't say that they have NO affinity because of this possibility.
Noble gases essentially have zero electron affinity, because an added electron would be in the new energy level due to the fact that noble gases have eight electrons in their valence shell, with the exception of Helium at 2 which is also considered full.
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