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Posted: Tue Dec 05, 2017 7:11 pm
Could someone explain why we know for sure that the concentration of OH- will be twice the amount of Ba(OH)2? Like I get that it will be twice an amount because of the coefficient of 2, but why do we assume it's twice the concentration of Ba(OH)2?
Posted: Tue Dec 05, 2017 10:19 pm
There are two molecules of OH within the molecule, making the ratio 1:2 of concentration of Ba(OH)2 to OH, making there be double the amount (or concentration) of the OH molecules.
Posted: Wed Dec 06, 2017 7:31 am
The equation is
Ba(OH)2 ---> Ba2+ + 2 OH-
So for every mole of Ba(OH)2, you have 2 moles of OH-, so you multiply the concentration by 2.