In the solutions manual for this problem, when it is setting up the equation why do you multiply the 1/T in (1/T - 1/T') by T/T and the 1/T' by T'/T' to get
((T' - T)/(TT'))? Why can't you just leave it as (1/T - 1/T')?
15.61
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Jana Sun 1I
- Posts: 52
- Joined: Sat Jul 22, 2017 3:00 am
Re: 15.61
That's a good question. I don't know why they changed it around. I solved it by leaving it as (1/T - 1/T') and I got the same answer.
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Jana Sun 1I
- Posts: 52
- Joined: Sat Jul 22, 2017 3:00 am
Re: 15.61
No problem! Also, in 15.63, we use the same equation but they kept the term as (1/T - 1/T'), so I really don't know why they felt it was necessary to change the it to ((T' - T)/(TT')).
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